Posted on 2022-03-06 by Nikita Oparin If we assume that there is an infinitely large number of numbers in [1;2], can this number be less than an infinitely large set, say, in [1; 3]? Read If we assume that there is an infinitely large number of numbers in [1;2], can this number be less than an infinitely large set, say, in [1; 3]?
Read If we assume that there is an infinitely large number of numbers in [1;2], can this number be less than an infinitely large set, say, in [1; 3]?