Categories
- Art (356)
- Other (3,632)
- Philosophy (2,814)
- Psychology (4,018)
- Society (1,010)
Recent Questions
- Why did everyone start to hate the Russians if the U.S. did the same thing in Afghanistan, Iraq?
- What needs to be corrected in the management of Russia first?
- Why did Blaise Pascal become a religious man at the end of his life?
- How do I know if a guy likes you?
- When they say "one generation", how many do they mean?
Definitely not. These are generally opposites. Nietzsche exalts the Jews and humiliates the Germans, national socialism calls for the unity of the German peoples, Nietzsche for individualism. Nietzsche was rather harsh on Aryan religions, especially Zoroastrianism, while the National Socialists idealized Aryans.
Hitlerism is a function of Platonism and Hegelianism, as K. Popper convincingly explained in “The Open Society and its Enemies” (although the word “function” is not appropriate here, well, okay – it's clear what was meant). The implantation of Hegel's philosophy in the Stalinist USSR (and indeed in the USSR in general) is explained by the same thing-related regimes. And the ban on Nietzsche in the USSR was only justified by the lie about his philosophy as the alleged ideological basis of national Socialism. Judging by the question, this Marxist-Leninist lie continues to spread successfully.
P.S. The number of pluses (+5 from the very beginning) in the evaluation of the answer is an error and occurred “automatically”. Usually, my answers, because they are smart, do not get such a large number of positive ratings here.