3 Answers

  1. By free will, the theorem implies nondeterminism. The theorem states that if the behavior of people is not reducible to their past (i.e., it is not deterministic), then the behavior of some elementary particles is not reducible to their past.

    It is not clear whether the opposite is proven – that the nondeterminism of elementary particles inevitably leads to the nondeterminism of people-but it seems quite logical. If so, then yes, quantum indeterminacy implies the indeterminacy of human behavior, but I would not call it free will.

  2. Given that the presence of freedom is the initial assumption of the theorem, then no. Based on this theorem, we can say that either people and elementary particles have free will, or no one has it.

  3. A person has free will,but it is very small.Free will means getting what you want instantly.And in humans, this is only thinking, body movement, and speaking.But for the rest, time and space are already taking part with their own buns.So instant rendering for kilometers is used by transport means. And on foot nuuu very long

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