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The word “a priori” was popularized by I. Kant at the end of the XVIII century. Kant, in turn, borrowed it from the most popular German philosophical system of his time – the philosophy of Leibniz.
In Kantian philosophy, it meant the kind of knowledge that exists in us before experience. For example, according to Kant, the concepts of “space” and” time ” are not a generalization of our experience, but a condition for the possibility of experience itself – that is, if a person did not have the idea of space, then he could not perceive objects as being “closer”, “further”, “left”, “right”, etc. That is why Kant calls them “a priori forms of sensuality” – i.e., the condition of sensory perception of reality, as if empty molds that we fill with concrete perceptions. The same a priori contents, according to Kant, determine not only perception, but also thinking – Kant calls them “a priori categories”.
In a broad sense, the word “a priori” has come to be used to indicate what is self-evident, understandable to all interlocutors, and does not require experimental proof. That is, the phrase “a film made by this director is a priori some kind of regular bullshit” should be read in such a way that you do not need to watch this film (sensory experience) to know that it is nonsense. That is, this knowledge is pre-experienced and independent of experience.
I have always understood the meaning of the word “a priori “as” an axiom that does not require proof” – and I have never seen or heard any other definitions of this word… although the ways of the Lord are inscrutable – some illiterate fool will definitely appear, who will begin to say not “thinking”, but “thinking”, not “in this regard”, but “in this regard”, will call legal requirements “emotions”, and instead of an unambiguous answer “yes” or ” no ” will begin to evasively lecture about the political and economic situation in the constellation Alpha Centauri-etc. “and what meaning he will put into the words he utters, even he will not fully understand….