One Answer

  1. From the point of view of criminal law, he is not considered anyone. And the point of view of science does not depend on who he has sex with. And to whom the attraction is stronger. If teenagers are more attractive to him than fully formed women, then the man is an ephebophile. But not a pedophile. Because a pedophile has the strongest attraction to prepubescent children.

    People generally confuse everything. Violators of the Criminal Code may or may not be pedophiles or ephebophiles (most often). And the violation itself is not “filia” (this is not a crime), but sex with minors and other sexual crimes against non-minors. The disease is not “philia” in itself, but the inability to control the attraction, keeping their behavior within the framework of the Criminal Code. Or the suffering of the “pedophile” / “ephebophile” himself in connection with the experienced attraction.

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